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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Which of the following is TRUE regarding a patient with syncope?
Correct
Brief (usually less than 10 seconds) tonic–clonic seizure activity can accompany syncope of any etiology. This activity is not accompanied by postictal disorientation, and it does not represent true seizure activity. For cerebrovascular disease to cause a loss of consciousness, either both cerebral hemispheres or the brainstem must be deprived of blood flow. Therefore transient ischemic attacks and stroke are rarely the cause of syncope. Screening laboratory studies have been shown to add little to establishing a cause of syncope. In most cases, hypoglycemia is clinically suspected and abnormal electrolytes rarely account for a loss of consciousness. Anemia from bleeding is usually clinically evident. Tilt-table testing reveals abnormalities in 20% to 70% of patients whose emergency department evaluation leaves them without a diagnosis.
Incorrect
Brief (usually less than 10 seconds) tonic–clonic seizure activity can accompany syncope of any etiology. This activity is not accompanied by postictal disorientation, and it does not represent true seizure activity. For cerebrovascular disease to cause a loss of consciousness, either both cerebral hemispheres or the brainstem must be deprived of blood flow. Therefore transient ischemic attacks and stroke are rarely the cause of syncope. Screening laboratory studies have been shown to add little to establishing a cause of syncope. In most cases, hypoglycemia is clinically suspected and abnormal electrolytes rarely account for a loss of consciousness. Anemia from bleeding is usually clinically evident. Tilt-table testing reveals abnormalities in 20% to 70% of patients whose emergency department evaluation leaves them without a diagnosis.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
EKG findings that are associated with poor short-term outcomes in patients with syncope include all of the following EXCEPT:
Correct
Although the definition of abnormal ECG varies among the many studies examining their role in the diagnosis of syncope, particular attention should be paid to any nonsinus rhythm, signs of ischemia, or conduction abnormalities.
Incorrect
Although the definition of abnormal ECG varies among the many studies examining their role in the diagnosis of syncope, particular attention should be paid to any nonsinus rhythm, signs of ischemia, or conduction abnormalities.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
All of the following favor a diagnosis of seizure rather than syncope EXCEPT:
Correct
Syncope is defined as an interruption in cerebral perfusion causing a transient loss of consciousness. Syncopal events should last less than 5 minutes and patients should return immediately to their baseline mental status as cerebral perfusion is restored. Lateral tongue biting is more commonly associated with seizure, and the most specific sign for a seizure, while anterior tongue biting can be seen with syncope. Urinary incontinence is frequently seen in seizure patients, but would be unusual following syncope.
Incorrect
Syncope is defined as an interruption in cerebral perfusion causing a transient loss of consciousness. Syncopal events should last less than 5 minutes and patients should return immediately to their baseline mental status as cerebral perfusion is restored. Lateral tongue biting is more commonly associated with seizure, and the most specific sign for a seizure, while anterior tongue biting can be seen with syncope. Urinary incontinence is frequently seen in seizure patients, but would be unusual following syncope.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Which of the following are electrocardiograph features of Mobitz type I second-degree AV block?
Correct
A is incorrect, because the R-R interval classically shortens as the PR interval lengthens. B describes a first-degree AV block, not a second-degree AV block. C is correct. D is incorrect, because Mobitz type II blocks more commonly feature a prolonged QRS complex than Mobitz type I AV blocks.
Incorrect
A is incorrect, because the R-R interval classically shortens as the PR interval lengthens. B describes a first-degree AV block, not a second-degree AV block. C is correct. D is incorrect, because Mobitz type II blocks more commonly feature a prolonged QRS complex than Mobitz type I AV blocks.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
In the cardiac conduction system, which of the following is most correct?
Correct
The sinoatrial (SA) node is innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves, which alter its discharge rate. The SA node is the normal pacemaker of the heart with an inherent rate of 60 to 100 beats per minute. The arterial supply for the SA node is either the right coronary artery (55%) or the circumflex artery (45%). The atrioventricular (AV) node is usually supplied by the right coronary artery 90% of the time with the remaining 10% originating from the circumflex. The inherent rate of the AV node is 30 to 40 beats per minute, which is primarily used as an escape rhythm if the primary pacemaker of the heart, the SA node, fails.
Incorrect
The sinoatrial (SA) node is innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves, which alter its discharge rate. The SA node is the normal pacemaker of the heart with an inherent rate of 60 to 100 beats per minute. The arterial supply for the SA node is either the right coronary artery (55%) or the circumflex artery (45%). The atrioventricular (AV) node is usually supplied by the right coronary artery 90% of the time with the remaining 10% originating from the circumflex. The inherent rate of the AV node is 30 to 40 beats per minute, which is primarily used as an escape rhythm if the primary pacemaker of the heart, the SA node, fails.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in treating ventricular escape rhythms?
Correct
Lidocaine, which may abolish the ventricular rhythm completely, is contraindicated because it may cause cardiac standstill. Atropine, due to its vagolytic properties, enhances sinus node automaticity and AV nodal conduction. Isoproterenol, a beta-adrenergic agonist, has both inotropic and chronotropic effects. Isoproterenol increases myocardial oxygen demand and should be used with caution in ischemic myocardium. Glucagon has been shown to be useful in the treatment of bradyarrhythmias secondary to beta-adrenergic blocking agents and calcium antagonists. Glucagon stimulates the SA node directly giving some mild increase in heart rate. Glucagon also increases cardiac contractility.
Incorrect
Lidocaine, which may abolish the ventricular rhythm completely, is contraindicated because it may cause cardiac standstill. Atropine, due to its vagolytic properties, enhances sinus node automaticity and AV nodal conduction. Isoproterenol, a beta-adrenergic agonist, has both inotropic and chronotropic effects. Isoproterenol increases myocardial oxygen demand and should be used with caution in ischemic myocardium. Glucagon has been shown to be useful in the treatment of bradyarrhythmias secondary to beta-adrenergic blocking agents and calcium antagonists. Glucagon stimulates the SA node directly giving some mild increase in heart rate. Glucagon also increases cardiac contractility.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Which of the following therapies should be employed for the treatment of atrial fibrillation with pre-excitation (e.g., Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome)?
Correct
In wide-complex atrial fibrillation, any drug that slows conduction through the AV node can cause ventricular fibrillation from rapidly conducted impulses via the accessory pathway. Adenosine, calcium channel blockers, and beta blockers are all contraindicated in this setting. Though procainamide is considered first-line pharmacotherapy in the stable patient with wide-complex atrial fibrillation, electrical cardioversion is more effective. Amiodarone is also less effective and carries the risk of slowing AV conduction.
Incorrect
In wide-complex atrial fibrillation, any drug that slows conduction through the AV node can cause ventricular fibrillation from rapidly conducted impulses via the accessory pathway. Adenosine, calcium channel blockers, and beta blockers are all contraindicated in this setting. Though procainamide is considered first-line pharmacotherapy in the stable patient with wide-complex atrial fibrillation, electrical cardioversion is more effective. Amiodarone is also less effective and carries the risk of slowing AV conduction.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A patient is brought into the ED by EMS as a STEMI activation and promptly loses his pulse and becomes unresponsive. The monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. Which of the following describes the correct sequence of treatment, assuming the patient is already connected to a defibrillator?
Correct
As per the 2010 AHA guidelines, CPR should only take place until the defibrillator is ready, and defibrillation at 200 J should be performed as soon as possible in VF arrest. Escalating doses of 50–100–150 J are no longer recommended and 200 J should be used for biphasic defibrillators. Though epinephrine is recommended as part of ACLS, it should not take precedence over defibrillation and has not shown long-term benefit in the treatment of cardiac arrest.
Incorrect
As per the 2010 AHA guidelines, CPR should only take place until the defibrillator is ready, and defibrillation at 200 J should be performed as soon as possible in VF arrest. Escalating doses of 50–100–150 J are no longer recommended and 200 J should be used for biphasic defibrillators. Though epinephrine is recommended as part of ACLS, it should not take precedence over defibrillation and has not shown long-term benefit in the treatment of cardiac arrest.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
A 70-year-old female presents in new onset atrial fibrillation. She is unsure exactly when her symptoms became noticeable. She denies any symptoms except some fluttering in the chest. Her initial vitals are BP 170/90 mm Hg, HR 160 beats per minute, Temp 98.6°F, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals a fast irregular heart rate, but otherwise the cardiovascular examination is essentially normal. ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate and no evidence of ischemia. Chest examination is normal with no crackles in the lung bases. The neurologic examination is normal. Which of the following statements is most correct in pharmacologic treatment?
Correct
This patient represents stable atrial fibrillation (AF) with a rapid ventricular rate. For patients presenting with AF and a rapid ventricular response, treatment is directed at slowing the ventricular rate. Calcium channel blockers, in particular diltiazem, slow ventricular response within the first few minutes of IV administration. Beta blockers such as atenolol or metoprolol are about as effective as calcium channel blockers for rate control, but are seldom used because of a higher incidence of hypotension. Neither calcium channel blockers nor beta blockers are particularly effective at producing cardioversion to sinus rhythm. Digoxin is no better than placebo in the first few hours of rate control for rapid atrial fibrillation. Stable patients do not need cardioversion in the ED. This patient has an unknown time period since the atrial fibrillation has manifested. Anticoagulation is an important management issue for patients with AF. Not only are patients with AF that lasts more than several days at risk for systemic embolization, but recent evidence suggests that even shorter periods of AF may carry a risk of embolization, particularly following conversion to sinus rhythm. Patients should be considered for anticoagulation prior to cardioversion for all presentations of atrial fibrillation that is stable. Amiodarone slows ventricular rate and increases the frequency of conversion to sinus rhythm after greater than 24 hours. There is no difference between placebo and amiodarone in the first 8 hours. Amiodarone thus has little utility in the new-onset stable patient with AF and a rapid rate.
Incorrect
This patient represents stable atrial fibrillation (AF) with a rapid ventricular rate. For patients presenting with AF and a rapid ventricular response, treatment is directed at slowing the ventricular rate. Calcium channel blockers, in particular diltiazem, slow ventricular response within the first few minutes of IV administration. Beta blockers such as atenolol or metoprolol are about as effective as calcium channel blockers for rate control, but are seldom used because of a higher incidence of hypotension. Neither calcium channel blockers nor beta blockers are particularly effective at producing cardioversion to sinus rhythm. Digoxin is no better than placebo in the first few hours of rate control for rapid atrial fibrillation. Stable patients do not need cardioversion in the ED. This patient has an unknown time period since the atrial fibrillation has manifested. Anticoagulation is an important management issue for patients with AF. Not only are patients with AF that lasts more than several days at risk for systemic embolization, but recent evidence suggests that even shorter periods of AF may carry a risk of embolization, particularly following conversion to sinus rhythm. Patients should be considered for anticoagulation prior to cardioversion for all presentations of atrial fibrillation that is stable. Amiodarone slows ventricular rate and increases the frequency of conversion to sinus rhythm after greater than 24 hours. There is no difference between placebo and amiodarone in the first 8 hours. Amiodarone thus has little utility in the new-onset stable patient with AF and a rapid rate.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
A magnet placed over a standard pacemaker will cause
Correct
Placement of a magnet over a pacemaker will cause synchronous pacing at model-specific rates.
Incorrect
Placement of a magnet over a pacemaker will cause synchronous pacing at model-specific rates.
This week kicks off with the first FLIP of the brand new academic year! Our first block with be all things cardiovascular and split into 5 blocks. We are the second best cardiologists in the hospital, and it is crucial to our practice! You will not want to miss these FLIP sessions.
Our first FLIP will be hosted by Dr. Twiner and Burkholder, and cover dysrhythmias, syncope, and implantable cardiac devices. We will start the day with a quiz review by BurKava, followed by Follow Up Rounds by Dr. Warpinski, and then some FLIP with some hands on cardiology and cases to follow.
Finally, there are a lot of good resources out there, and especially for these high-yield topics… We posted a lot below. Don’t get overwhelmed with all of the material below, we don’t expect anyone to review everything posted and doing so is likely impossible. As always, pick one of the thorough sources per topic that you like/works best for you and dive in. Or just get through the Harwood and Nuss chapters and you will be golden. We hope that providing a wider range of options this year will make things more painless when you are able to choose your learning style/preferred resources.
Interns: EMRAP’s C3 podcast covers a lot of these topics and has awesome content. If you still don’t have your EMRA ID (gives free EMRAP access), email the chiefs and I’ll share my log in for this week.
Online Material:
Atrial Fibrillation/Dysrhythmias
Words
— EBM article – A Fib
— COREM – quick bullet point article
— LITFL – (more bullet points)
Audio/Visual
— CRACKCast – Ch 79 – Dysrhythmia
— EMRAP C3 – A. Fib
— EMCases podcast – A Fib rate vs rhythm control, treatment
Tachyarrhythmias
— EBM article – Differentiating Wide Complex Tachycardia
A/V
— EMRAP C3 – Tachyarrhythmias
— EM in 5 – Approach to Tachyarhythmias video
— FOAMCast – Tachyarrhythmias
Bradydysrhythmias
— EBM article – Bradydysrhythmia
— EMDocs – Bradycardia
A/V
— Floating a transvenous pacer – Video 1 (Dr. Jones Favorite), or Video 2
— FOAMCast – Bradycardia and Transvenous pacing
Syncope
Podcast galore
— CRACKCast – Ch 15 Syncope – podcast covering Rosen’s chapters
— EMRAP C3 on Syncope
— EM in 5 – Syncope – short and sweet
— FOAMCast – Syncope (23′)
— EMBasic – Syncope (30′)
Text Material
HARWOOD & NUSS
ROSENS