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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A 22-year old female presents to the Emergency Department with two episodes of sudden onset left lower quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting. The first episode lasted for a few hours and spontaneously resolved for a few hours before returning again. After administration of pain medications, her pain has improved although she still feels “achy” in the left lower quadrant. She is afebrile with a white blood cell count of 11.0, and her physical exam is significant for mild left lower quadrant tenderness without rebound or guarding. Bedside urine pregnancy test and urine dipstick are both negative. Pelvic ultrasound demonstrates a 5.4cm simple left ovarian cyst with normal arterial blood flow but decreased venous flow compared to the right ovary. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
This patient is presenting with ovarian torsion. This patient’s cyst is greater than 5cm, putting her at risk for ovarian torsion. Her history of episodes of sudden onset pain is concerning for stuttering, intermittent torsion leading up to this event. Although ultrasound demonstrates intact arterial blood flow, the most frequent ultrasonographic abnormality in ovarian torsion is either decreased or absence of venous flow in the presence of intact arterial flow. Laparoscopy is the gold standard for diagnosis and management.
Incorrect
This patient is presenting with ovarian torsion. This patient’s cyst is greater than 5cm, putting her at risk for ovarian torsion. Her history of episodes of sudden onset pain is concerning for stuttering, intermittent torsion leading up to this event. Although ultrasound demonstrates intact arterial blood flow, the most frequent ultrasonographic abnormality in ovarian torsion is either decreased or absence of venous flow in the presence of intact arterial flow. Laparoscopy is the gold standard for diagnosis and management.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 18-year-old girl with no previous medical history, presents with suprapubic pain with nausea. She denies urinary frequency, urgency or dysuria. She is currently sexually active with 1 male partner. Pelvic exam shows yellow-green frothy vaginal discharge, and punctate hemorrhage around cervix. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this condition?
Correct
Trichomonas vaginalis, a protozoa, is the causative agent of trichomoniasis. It is the most common non-viral sexually transmitted infection worldwide. Patients typically complain of yellow-green, frothy and malodorous vaginal discharge, with protozoa seen on wet mount. “Strawberry cervix”, or punctate hemorrhage around cervix, is seen on exam. Vaginal pH becomes more alkalotic, and is generally greater than 4.5. Treatment of trichomonas vaginitis is metronidazole. Clue cell is seen in bacterial vaginosis. Recent antibiotics use is a common risk factor for candidal vaginitis.
Incorrect
Trichomonas vaginalis, a protozoa, is the causative agent of trichomoniasis. It is the most common non-viral sexually transmitted infection worldwide. Patients typically complain of yellow-green, frothy and malodorous vaginal discharge, with protozoa seen on wet mount. “Strawberry cervix”, or punctate hemorrhage around cervix, is seen on exam. Vaginal pH becomes more alkalotic, and is generally greater than 4.5. Treatment of trichomonas vaginitis is metronidazole. Clue cell is seen in bacterial vaginosis. Recent antibiotics use is a common risk factor for candidal vaginitis.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A 65-year old female presents to the Emergency Room with a chief complaint of vaginal bleeding for 5 days. She is using about 2 pads per day. Prior to this episode, she has not had a menstrual period for 9 years. She has no past medical or surgical history. Vital signs are normal and her hemoglobin is 12.5 g/dL. Pelvic exam reveals a scant amount of dried blood in the vaginal vault, with mildly atrophic vaginal mucosa but no lesions. The uterus is of appropriate size, and there is no cervical motion tenderness or adnexal tenderness. What is the next best step in management of this patient?
Correct
The most common causes of postmenopausal vaginal bleeding is vaginal/endometrial atrophy 60%) and endometrial polyps (12%). However, endometrial cancer comprises about 10% of incidence. Given the stability of the patient, no further emergent imaging is indicated at this time, and urgent outpatient gynecology referral for further workup, including, but not limited to, endometrial biopsy, cervical cytology, and/or transvaginal ultraosund.
First line treatment of symptomatic atrophic vaginitis is vaginal moisturizing agents and lubricants. If that fails, and there is no contraindication for hormonal therapy (such as estrogen-based tumors like breast cancer), then low dose vaginal estrogen is the next step. In this question, the patient is stable and first-line therapy is nonhormonal moisturizing/lubricating agents and outpatient gynecology referral for endometrial biopsy, cervical cytology, and/or ultrasound to exclude endometrial cancer first. The biopsy should be obtained BEFORE starting any treatment. While the workup for vaginal bleeding may include serum testing, there is no indication with this clinically stable and otherwise normal patient to emergently order blood tests. These tests, along with other imaging or biopsy/cytology testing, may be performed on an outpatient basis.
Incorrect
The most common causes of postmenopausal vaginal bleeding is vaginal/endometrial atrophy 60%) and endometrial polyps (12%). However, endometrial cancer comprises about 10% of incidence. Given the stability of the patient, no further emergent imaging is indicated at this time, and urgent outpatient gynecology referral for further workup, including, but not limited to, endometrial biopsy, cervical cytology, and/or transvaginal ultraosund.
First line treatment of symptomatic atrophic vaginitis is vaginal moisturizing agents and lubricants. If that fails, and there is no contraindication for hormonal therapy (such as estrogen-based tumors like breast cancer), then low dose vaginal estrogen is the next step. In this question, the patient is stable and first-line therapy is nonhormonal moisturizing/lubricating agents and outpatient gynecology referral for endometrial biopsy, cervical cytology, and/or ultrasound to exclude endometrial cancer first. The biopsy should be obtained BEFORE starting any treatment. While the workup for vaginal bleeding may include serum testing, there is no indication with this clinically stable and otherwise normal patient to emergently order blood tests. These tests, along with other imaging or biopsy/cytology testing, may be performed on an outpatient basis.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Which of the following is the most common ultrasound finding for patients with ovarian torsion?
Correct
An ultrasound exam is usually the initial diagnostic study in the workup for ovarian torsion. The most common ultrasound finding in ovarian torsion is enlargement of the ovary. Enlargement develops due to impaired venous and lymphatic drainage, in addition to edema and hemorrhage that may occur. Less common findings include identification of a twisted pedicle (whirlpool sign), free pelvic fluid, and identification of an ovarian mass. RISK FACTORS: ovarian mass >5mm, reproductive age, pregnancy, ovulation induction, prior torsion. CLINICAL: adnexal pain/mass, vomiting, fever, vaginal bleeding
Free pelvic and intraperitoneal fluid (B) may surround the twisted ovary. This is usually the result of interstitial fluid that weeps off an affected ovary rather than true rupture of the capsule. Many cases of surgically proven ovarian torsion will have documented blood flow (C) on Doppler exam because the ovary has a dual blood supply from both the ovarian and uterine arteries. In addition, torsion is often intermittent, so findings may vary, depending on the time of the exam. Identification of an ovarian mass or cyst (>4 cm) (D) may suggest the diagnosis of ovarian torsion, but it is not the most common finding on ultrasound.Incorrect
An ultrasound exam is usually the initial diagnostic study in the workup for ovarian torsion. The most common ultrasound finding in ovarian torsion is enlargement of the ovary. Enlargement develops due to impaired venous and lymphatic drainage, in addition to edema and hemorrhage that may occur. Less common findings include identification of a twisted pedicle (whirlpool sign), free pelvic fluid, and identification of an ovarian mass. RISK FACTORS: ovarian mass >5mm, reproductive age, pregnancy, ovulation induction, prior torsion. CLINICAL: adnexal pain/mass, vomiting, fever, vaginal bleeding
Free pelvic and intraperitoneal fluid (B) may surround the twisted ovary. This is usually the result of interstitial fluid that weeps off an affected ovary rather than true rupture of the capsule. Many cases of surgically proven ovarian torsion will have documented blood flow (C) on Doppler exam because the ovary has a dual blood supply from both the ovarian and uterine arteries. In addition, torsion is often intermittent, so findings may vary, depending on the time of the exam. Identification of an ovarian mass or cyst (>4 cm) (D) may suggest the diagnosis of ovarian torsion, but it is not the most common finding on ultrasound. -
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A 32-year-old woman presents with pain and swelling in the vaginal area. Examination reveals the finding below. What management is indicated?
Correct
This patient presents with a Bartholin’s abscess and should have incision and drainage (I+D) performed with the incision on the mucosal surface. Bartholin’s abscesses are infections located in the Bartholin’s glands which lie inferiorly to the vaginal opening. Patients develop cysts of the gland that become secondarily infected. These abscesses typically are caused by normally occurring aerobic and anaerobic bacteria in the vagina but may also be caused by sexually transmitted infections. Patients present with swelling and pain near the labium. Examination revels a tender, fluctuant mass along the posterolateral margin of the vaginal vestibule. Treatment focuses on incision and drainage with insertion of a Word catheter. The Word catheter has a small balloon at the end that is inflated after insertion and remains in place for 6 to 8 weeks. Because of this duration, the incision should be made on the mucosal surface so that the Word catheter can be tucked into the vaginal opening for patient comfort. Incision and drainage is usually adequate but patients with overlying cellulitis may require antibiotics. After discharge, patients should perform sitz baths to aid with drainage. Recurrence is common.
Incorrect
This patient presents with a Bartholin’s abscess and should have incision and drainage (I+D) performed with the incision on the mucosal surface. Bartholin’s abscesses are infections located in the Bartholin’s glands which lie inferiorly to the vaginal opening. Patients develop cysts of the gland that become secondarily infected. These abscesses typically are caused by normally occurring aerobic and anaerobic bacteria in the vagina but may also be caused by sexually transmitted infections. Patients present with swelling and pain near the labium. Examination revels a tender, fluctuant mass along the posterolateral margin of the vaginal vestibule. Treatment focuses on incision and drainage with insertion of a Word catheter. The Word catheter has a small balloon at the end that is inflated after insertion and remains in place for 6 to 8 weeks. Because of this duration, the incision should be made on the mucosal surface so that the Word catheter can be tucked into the vaginal opening for patient comfort. Incision and drainage is usually adequate but patients with overlying cellulitis may require antibiotics. After discharge, patients should perform sitz baths to aid with drainage. Recurrence is common.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 22-year-old woman presents with lower abdominal pain and vaginal discharge. She is sexually active with men with inconsistent barrier protection. Her vitals are normal other than temperature of 101°F. On examination, there is yellow cervical discharge, no cervical motion tenderness, but uterine and left adnexal tenderness. An ultrasound does not show any evidence of tubo-ovarian abscess. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct
This patient has a clinical presentation consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is an ascending infection that begins in the vagina or cervix. In the sexually active female, the most common responsible organisms are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Frequently, the infection is polymicrobial. The most common presenting symptom is lower abdominal pain. Patients may also develop fever, vaginal discharge, dyspareunia or abnormal bleeding. On physical examination, the patient typically has a fever and is tender on pelvic examination either in the lower abdomen over the uterus, on cervical motion or in the adnexa. The absence of cervical motion tenderness does not rule out PID and the CDC recommends empiric treatment for sexually active women presenting with lower abdominal pain and one of the following if no other cause is identified: cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness or uterine tenderness. For outpatient management, patients are treated with ceftriaxone 250 mg IM followed by a two-week course of doxycycline. Metronidazole is sometimes added to the regimen at the judgment of the clinician.
Incorrect
This patient has a clinical presentation consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is an ascending infection that begins in the vagina or cervix. In the sexually active female, the most common responsible organisms are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Frequently, the infection is polymicrobial. The most common presenting symptom is lower abdominal pain. Patients may also develop fever, vaginal discharge, dyspareunia or abnormal bleeding. On physical examination, the patient typically has a fever and is tender on pelvic examination either in the lower abdomen over the uterus, on cervical motion or in the adnexa. The absence of cervical motion tenderness does not rule out PID and the CDC recommends empiric treatment for sexually active women presenting with lower abdominal pain and one of the following if no other cause is identified: cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness or uterine tenderness. For outpatient management, patients are treated with ceftriaxone 250 mg IM followed by a two-week course of doxycycline. Metronidazole is sometimes added to the regimen at the judgment of the clinician.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
A 43-year old non-pregnant female presents to the Emergency Department with acute onset, severe vaginal bleeding. Initial vital signs: HR 125, BP 85/50, RR 26. Multiple units of blood products are empirically being administered with crystalloid fluids while pending laboratory blood studies. Examination of the vagina is severely limited secondary to large amounts of exsanguination, so the vaginal canal is packed. Repeat vital signs are: HR 145, BP 76/45, RR 30, and the patient is feeling increasingly anxious and lightheaded. Obstetric/Gynecology and Interventional radiology have been consulted. Which of the following is the next best step in management of this patient?
Correct
The correct answer is IV estrogens. High-dose estrogen is thought to promote rapid regrowth of endometrium and stabilize uterine bleeding within the first five hours of administration. In hemodynamically unstable patients, IV estrogen is recommended, while oral estrogen is appropriate for hemodynamically stable patients. Oxytocin and methylergonovine can be used in post-partum bleeding.
Carbaprost tromethamine is a prostaglandin analog used in postpartum bleeding that stimulates uterine contractility, promoting hemostasis at the placental site. Methylergonovine is used in post-partum uterine bleeding, by increasing uterine smooth muscle contractions to reduce blood loss. Recombinant factor VIIa has been FDA-approved for use in bleeding in patients with hemophilia A/B, factor VII deficiency, or acquired hemophilia. Off-label, recombinant factor VIIa has been used as a general hemostatic agent – in this patient, IV estrogen should be first utilized before moving onto more controversial, last-ditch efforts.
Incorrect
The correct answer is IV estrogens. High-dose estrogen is thought to promote rapid regrowth of endometrium and stabilize uterine bleeding within the first five hours of administration. In hemodynamically unstable patients, IV estrogen is recommended, while oral estrogen is appropriate for hemodynamically stable patients. Oxytocin and methylergonovine can be used in post-partum bleeding.
Carbaprost tromethamine is a prostaglandin analog used in postpartum bleeding that stimulates uterine contractility, promoting hemostasis at the placental site. Methylergonovine is used in post-partum uterine bleeding, by increasing uterine smooth muscle contractions to reduce blood loss. Recombinant factor VIIa has been FDA-approved for use in bleeding in patients with hemophilia A/B, factor VII deficiency, or acquired hemophilia. Off-label, recombinant factor VIIa has been used as a general hemostatic agent – in this patient, IV estrogen should be first utilized before moving onto more controversial, last-ditch efforts.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A 45-year-old female presents to the ER with abdominal pain and increased abdominal girth. She denies EtOH, smoking, or drug use and has no past medical history. Physical exam is significant for a distended abdomen with a fluid wave. CT scan reveals a pelvic mass with carcinomatosis. What lab test is likely to support the diagnosis?
Correct
This patient likely has ovarian cancer and the biomarker likely to support this diagnosis is CA-125. AFP is elevated in certain germ cell tumors as well as in Hepatocellular CA. CEA is elevated in colorectal CA. CA 19-9 is elevated in pancreatic and some types of colorectal CA.
Incorrect
This patient likely has ovarian cancer and the biomarker likely to support this diagnosis is CA-125. AFP is elevated in certain germ cell tumors as well as in Hepatocellular CA. CEA is elevated in colorectal CA. CA 19-9 is elevated in pancreatic and some types of colorectal CA.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Which of the following is the most likely etiology of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?
Correct
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a condition that occurs in the setting of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and results in inflammation of the capsule surrounding the liver and the peritoneal surface of the anterior abdominal wall. It occurs in about 10% of patients with PID. Although it can be caused by any organisms responsible for pelvic inflammatory disease, Chlamydia trachomatis is most often implicated. Patients present with right upper quadrant pleuritic pain and tenderness. They may also have symptoms of PID, such as pelvic pain and vaginal discharge although these symptoms may be mild or lacking. Treatment regimens are similar to those for PID.
nfection with Gardnerella vaginalis (B) results in symptoms of vaginitis, but does not play a role in the development of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome. Hepatitis C virus (C) causes hepatitis, but is also not involved in the development of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (D) can cause Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome although it is more likely to be due to a C. trachomatis.Incorrect
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a condition that occurs in the setting of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and results in inflammation of the capsule surrounding the liver and the peritoneal surface of the anterior abdominal wall. It occurs in about 10% of patients with PID. Although it can be caused by any organisms responsible for pelvic inflammatory disease, Chlamydia trachomatis is most often implicated. Patients present with right upper quadrant pleuritic pain and tenderness. They may also have symptoms of PID, such as pelvic pain and vaginal discharge although these symptoms may be mild or lacking. Treatment regimens are similar to those for PID.
nfection with Gardnerella vaginalis (B) results in symptoms of vaginitis, but does not play a role in the development of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome. Hepatitis C virus (C) causes hepatitis, but is also not involved in the development of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (D) can cause Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome although it is more likely to be due to a C. trachomatis. -
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
A 6-year-old child presents to the ED accompanied her mother complaining of vaginal discharge for the last 7 days. The mother describes it as malodorous and today she noted small specks of blood in the child’s underwear. The child began attending school several weeks ago. She has no past medical history and has otherwise been in good health. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Vaginal foreign bodies can manifest as vaginal discharge. The discharge associated with a foreign body is often malodorous and bloody or dark brown in color and occurs daily. Potential foreign bodies include small pieces of toilet paper and small objects or toys. In this case, the child recently started attending school and is likely toileting by herself. As a result, she may be at risk of poor hygiene and potentially may have a small piece of toilet paper stuck within the vagina. Attempted manual removal can be performed on cooperative children over 7 years of age through irrigation with normal saline. Vaginoscopy under anesthesia in the operating room may be necessary in younger children.
Incorrect
Vaginal foreign bodies can manifest as vaginal discharge. The discharge associated with a foreign body is often malodorous and bloody or dark brown in color and occurs daily. Potential foreign bodies include small pieces of toilet paper and small objects or toys. In this case, the child recently started attending school and is likely toileting by herself. As a result, she may be at risk of poor hygiene and potentially may have a small piece of toilet paper stuck within the vagina. Attempted manual removal can be performed on cooperative children over 7 years of age through irrigation with normal saline. Vaginoscopy under anesthesia in the operating room may be necessary in younger children.
This week concludes the GYN portion of our OB/GYN material. Conference will start with follow up rounds by Dr. Rooney, followed by some dedicated FLIP classroom by Doctors Wong, Melhem, Vincent, McRae. We will be covering Gynecologic ED complaints as well as GYN Onc this week. We will wrap all of this up with some US round with the illustrious Dr. Gallien. We may also have some Wellness 4.0 in store peri-lunchtime.
Online Material:
Non-Pregnant Vaginal Bleeding
EBM Vaginal Bleeding — OR — emDocs – Massive Vaginal Bleeding
– OR –
Audiophiles:
EMRAP C3 – Non-Pregnant Vaginal Bleeding
FOAMCast Episode 70 – Non-Pregnant Vaginal Bleeding
PID/STIs
emDocs – PID
— OR —
EBM Pelvic Inflammatory Disease also Points&Pearls on the article
Bartholin Cyst
— AFP – Bartholin Cyst or WikEM (sorry Zac)
Ancillary
CoreEM podcast – Ovarian Pathology (ToA, Torsion)
CoreEM bullets on Ovarian Torsion
CRACKCast
CRACKCast – E34 – Vaginal Bleeding
CRACKCast – E100 – Gynecologic Disorders
Text Material
HARWOOD & NUSS
Chapter 129: Pelvic Pain
Chapter 130: Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Chapter 131: Vaginal Bleeding in the Nonpregnant Patient
Chapter 132: Vaginitis
Chapter 133: Bartholin Gland Cyst’s and Abscess
Chapter 134: Breast Masses and Infections
Chapter 135: Sexual Assault
ROSENS
Chapters 34 – Vaginal Bleeding
Chapters 100 – Selected Gynecologic Disorders