Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
You have 10 minutes to answer 10 questions
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Neurology 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A 65-year-old male with a history of diabetes presents to the ED with 5 minutes of right arm paralysis. Symptoms resolved while at home, but the patient remains concerned. Past medical history is negative for hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Physical examination reveals blood pressure of 130/70 mmHg and a normal neurologic examination. Based on his ABCD2 score, what is the most appropriate disposition?
Correct
Transient ischemic attack is defined as a transient neurologic deficit that has complete resolution within 24 hours. The ABCD2 score can be used to predict likelihood of subsequent stroke within 2 days. Low risk patients (scores of 0-3) may be discharged home if they have reliable follow-up within two days, whereas moderate risk (4-5 points) and high risk (6-7 points) patients should be admitted for echocardiography, carotid dopplers, and likely carotid endarterectomy.
The scoring system is as follows:
Age of 60 years or greater = 1 point
Initial SBP of 140 or greater OR DBP of 90 or greater = 1 point
Clinical features (Unilateral weakness = 2 points; Speech disturbance without weakness = 1 point; Other symptoms = 0 points)
Duration of symptoms (<10 minutes = 0 points; 10-59 minutes = 1 point; 60 minutes or greater = 2 points)
History of diabetes = 1 pointThis patient’s score = 4. He receives 1 point for age and 2 points for unilateral weakness as well as 1 point for history of diabetes.
Incorrect
Transient ischemic attack is defined as a transient neurologic deficit that has complete resolution within 24 hours. The ABCD2 score can be used to predict likelihood of subsequent stroke within 2 days. Low risk patients (scores of 0-3) may be discharged home if they have reliable follow-up within two days, whereas moderate risk (4-5 points) and high risk (6-7 points) patients should be admitted for echocardiography, carotid dopplers, and likely carotid endarterectomy.
The scoring system is as follows:
Age of 60 years or greater = 1 point
Initial SBP of 140 or greater OR DBP of 90 or greater = 1 point
Clinical features (Unilateral weakness = 2 points; Speech disturbance without weakness = 1 point; Other symptoms = 0 points)
Duration of symptoms (<10 minutes = 0 points; 10-59 minutes = 1 point; 60 minutes or greater = 2 points)
History of diabetes = 1 pointThis patient’s score = 4. He receives 1 point for age and 2 points for unilateral weakness as well as 1 point for history of diabetes.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 70 year old female with diabetes and hypertension presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of left arm and left face numbness and weakness, and difficulty speaking. The symptoms lasted for approximately 45 minutes and then resolved. Vitals are: BP 160/90 HR 92 RR 12 O2sat 99%. Neurologic exam is normal. Blood glucose is 285. EKG reveals atrial fibrillation. Upon admission, the patient has a carotid duplex which reveals right carotid stenosis of 65%. Which of the following interventions will most likely reduce this patient’s immediate mortality?
Correct
The patient had a transient ischemic attack. Two interventions that reduce mortality in patients with TIA are anticoagulation for patients with atrial fibrillation or LV thrombus, and carotid endarterectomy for carotid stenosis > 70%. The patient only has 65% stenosis, thus anticoagulation is the better answer choice. While long-term blood pressure control is important in decreasing morbidity and mortality for this patient, emergent blood pressure control has not been shown to decrease the immediate morbidity of this patient. Long-term blood glucose control is also important in decreasing morbidity and mortality for this patient, emergent blood glucose control has not been shown to decrease the immediate morbidity of this patient
Incorrect
The patient had a transient ischemic attack. Two interventions that reduce mortality in patients with TIA are anticoagulation for patients with atrial fibrillation or LV thrombus, and carotid endarterectomy for carotid stenosis > 70%. The patient only has 65% stenosis, thus anticoagulation is the better answer choice. While long-term blood pressure control is important in decreasing morbidity and mortality for this patient, emergent blood pressure control has not been shown to decrease the immediate morbidity of this patient. Long-term blood glucose control is also important in decreasing morbidity and mortality for this patient, emergent blood glucose control has not been shown to decrease the immediate morbidity of this patient
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A 60-year-old female presents with the complaint that the “room is spinning”. She endorses gradual onset symptoms that last for hours and has been unremitting. On further questioning she endorses a recent viral illness preceding the development of symptoms. Physical examination reveals a positive head impulse test (eyes make a corrective saccade to re-fixate on the visual target). What is the next best step in management?
Correct
When a patient presents with vertigo, it is imperative that a central cause of vertigo is excluded. Central vertigo is caused by disorders affecting the brainstem and cerebellum (i.e. hemorrhage, dissection, vascular insufficiency, etc). Disorders causing peripheral vertigo include benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), meniere’s disease, labyrinthitis, vestibular neuronitis, and ototoxicity, to name a few. This question describes a peripheral process, specifically vestibular neuronitis. Vestibular neuronitis is characterized by gradual onset vertigo that lasts for hours. It is commonly preceded by a viral illness. Diagnosis is supported by a positive head impulse test (sudden turning of the head elicits nystagmus of peripheral vertigo). Nystagmus of peripheral vertigo is horizontal and rotational, lessens or disappears when the patient focuses the gaze, and usually is triggered by some provoking factor. Treatment of vestibular neuronitis includes corticosteroids. The Epley maneuver treats BPPV, antibiotics are reserved for bacterial labyrinthitis, and acyclovir is for Bell’s palsy and possibly Ramsey Hunt syndrome (controversial).
Incorrect
When a patient presents with vertigo, it is imperative that a central cause of vertigo is excluded. Central vertigo is caused by disorders affecting the brainstem and cerebellum (i.e. hemorrhage, dissection, vascular insufficiency, etc). Disorders causing peripheral vertigo include benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), meniere’s disease, labyrinthitis, vestibular neuronitis, and ototoxicity, to name a few. This question describes a peripheral process, specifically vestibular neuronitis. Vestibular neuronitis is characterized by gradual onset vertigo that lasts for hours. It is commonly preceded by a viral illness. Diagnosis is supported by a positive head impulse test (sudden turning of the head elicits nystagmus of peripheral vertigo). Nystagmus of peripheral vertigo is horizontal and rotational, lessens or disappears when the patient focuses the gaze, and usually is triggered by some provoking factor. Treatment of vestibular neuronitis includes corticosteroids. The Epley maneuver treats BPPV, antibiotics are reserved for bacterial labyrinthitis, and acyclovir is for Bell’s palsy and possibly Ramsey Hunt syndrome (controversial).
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Which of the following is indicative of a cortical stroke?
Correct
Cortical strokes affect large arteries, like the MCA and ACA. They are characteristically large infarcts that have a progressively worsening course. Patients typically have loss of consciousness/executive function and a poor prognosis. They include motor AND sensory findings, along with cortical signs, such as aphasia and neglect. Inability to write and dysarthria describes the dysarthria/clumsy hand syndrome (a lacunar stroke syndrome), which can be localized to the: basilar pons, anterior limb of the internal capsule, corona radiata, basal ganglia, thalamus, or cerebral peduncle. Isolated hemiparesis of left face, arm, and leg describes a pure motor stroke (the most common lacunar stroke syndrome), localized often to the posterior limb of the internal capsule, basilar pons or corona radiata. Pain and tingling to right face, arm, and leg describes a pure sensory stroke (a lacunar stroke syndrome), localized to the contralateral thalamus, internal capsule, corona radiata, or midbrain.
Incorrect
Cortical strokes affect large arteries, like the MCA and ACA. They are characteristically large infarcts that have a progressively worsening course. Patients typically have loss of consciousness/executive function and a poor prognosis. They include motor AND sensory findings, along with cortical signs, such as aphasia and neglect. Inability to write and dysarthria describes the dysarthria/clumsy hand syndrome (a lacunar stroke syndrome), which can be localized to the: basilar pons, anterior limb of the internal capsule, corona radiata, basal ganglia, thalamus, or cerebral peduncle. Isolated hemiparesis of left face, arm, and leg describes a pure motor stroke (the most common lacunar stroke syndrome), localized often to the posterior limb of the internal capsule, basilar pons or corona radiata. Pain and tingling to right face, arm, and leg describes a pure sensory stroke (a lacunar stroke syndrome), localized to the contralateral thalamus, internal capsule, corona radiata, or midbrain.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A 68 year-old male with a history of diabetes and hypertension presents with right facial numbness and droop as well as right arm numbness/weakness for the past 3.5 hours. A CT head is performed on arrival and is negative for any acute pathology. The patient also has no history of seizure. Vital signs are as follows: BP 195/105, HR 90, RR 14, and O2 sat 98%. Glucose is 410 mg/dl (22.6 mmol/L). Which of the following is a contraindication to tPA in this patient?
Correct
The contraindication is a sustained blood pressure > 185/110. Antihypertensives can be administered, however a blood pressure at this level is currently a contraindication to TPA. tPA can be administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms according to the most current guidelines. There is no age cut off for administration of tPA. A contraindication to use of tPA in prior guidelines was a blood sugar > 400 mg/dl or 22.2 mmol/L or less than 50 mg/dl (2.8 mmol/L). However current recommendations have revised this recommendation to only include the less than 50 mg/dl (2.8 mmol/L) as a contraindication. Indications for tPA include age > 18, onset < 4.5 hours, and a negative head CT.
Incorrect
The contraindication is a sustained blood pressure > 185/110. Antihypertensives can be administered, however a blood pressure at this level is currently a contraindication to TPA. tPA can be administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms according to the most current guidelines. There is no age cut off for administration of tPA. A contraindication to use of tPA in prior guidelines was a blood sugar > 400 mg/dl or 22.2 mmol/L or less than 50 mg/dl (2.8 mmol/L). However current recommendations have revised this recommendation to only include the less than 50 mg/dl (2.8 mmol/L) as a contraindication. Indications for tPA include age > 18, onset < 4.5 hours, and a negative head CT.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 12-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with lethargy and a headache. While examining her, she has two episodes of nonbilious emesis. Which of the following is the most common cause of ischemic stroke in children?
Correct
Sickle cell disease is the most common cause of ischemic stroke in children. Patients with homozygous hemoglobin-SS are at greatest risk, but all genotypes have increased risk. Patients with sickle cell disease are also more likely than the general population to have cerebral aneurysms and cerebral arterial abnormalities. Infants and children with sickle cell disease are more likely to have ischemic strokes while hemorrhagic stroke is more common in adults. Patients may present with focal neurologic deficits, seizure, altered mental status and headache. Patients should be managed with conventional therapies for sickle cell disease, including oxygen, analgesia, and hydration. Exchange transfusion is indicated for acute ischemic stroke, which is a unique difference in management compared to the general population. The goal is to reduce hemoglobin S levels to < 30%.
Factor V Leiden (A) is the most common inherited hypercoagulable disorder and occurs predominantly in patients of European descent. Patients are more at risk for venous thromboembolic disease than for acute stroke. Hypertension (B) is a significant risk factor in cerebrovascular disease, including subarachnoid hemorrhage and lacunar infarcts. However, this is not the most common cause of pediatric strokes. Kawasaki disease (C) is a microvasculitis that may cause coronary artery aneurysms but does not cause cerebral vascular abnormalities or strokes.
Incorrect
Sickle cell disease is the most common cause of ischemic stroke in children. Patients with homozygous hemoglobin-SS are at greatest risk, but all genotypes have increased risk. Patients with sickle cell disease are also more likely than the general population to have cerebral aneurysms and cerebral arterial abnormalities. Infants and children with sickle cell disease are more likely to have ischemic strokes while hemorrhagic stroke is more common in adults. Patients may present with focal neurologic deficits, seizure, altered mental status and headache. Patients should be managed with conventional therapies for sickle cell disease, including oxygen, analgesia, and hydration. Exchange transfusion is indicated for acute ischemic stroke, which is a unique difference in management compared to the general population. The goal is to reduce hemoglobin S levels to < 30%.
Factor V Leiden (A) is the most common inherited hypercoagulable disorder and occurs predominantly in patients of European descent. Patients are more at risk for venous thromboembolic disease than for acute stroke. Hypertension (B) is a significant risk factor in cerebrovascular disease, including subarachnoid hemorrhage and lacunar infarcts. However, this is not the most common cause of pediatric strokes. Kawasaki disease (C) is a microvasculitis that may cause coronary artery aneurysms but does not cause cerebral vascular abnormalities or strokes.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
A 40-year-old man presents to the ED with the chief complaint of headache for two days. The headache is right frontal, constant, and severe. He has tried ibuprofen and acetaminophen without relief of the pain. He denies history of headaches, recent trauma, nausea, vomiting, and syncope. He has a past medical history of cervical disk protrusion for which he takes ibuprofen and gets manipulation by a chiropractor. His vital signs are T 36.6°C, BP 142/90, HR 82, RR 16, and oxygen saturation 99%. On examination, his right pupil is 3 mm and reactive; his left pupil is 6 mm and reactive. Extraocular movements are intact. He is unable to keep his right eyelid open against resistance. Visual acuity is 20/30 in both eyes with glasses. Fundoscopic exam is normal. His neck is supple. Strength is 5/5 in all extremities, gait is normal, and Romberg is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
This patient has a carotid artery dissection. This is the most frequent cause of stroke in patients < 45 years old. Risk factors include minor neck trauma (cervical manipulation in this patient), family history of arterial disease, and connective tissue disorders. The most common presenting symptoms are unilateral neck pain or headache around the eye or frontal area. The pain is classically abrupt in onset. Carotid artery dissection is associated with a partial ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome of miosis and ptosis without facial anhidrosis. Horner’s syndrome results from a disruption of sympathetic innervation anywhere along the sympathetic chain. A carotid bruit may be heard on exam. The diagnostic study of choice is a MRI/MRA. If left untreated, it can lead to cerebral ischemia or retinal artery infarction and vision loss.
Carotid Artery Dissection
• Most common cause of stroke in patients < 45 years
• Connective tissue disorders, neck trauma
• Abrupt unilateral neck pain or headache around the eye/frontal area, partial ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome (miosis/ptosis)
• MRI/MRA
• AnticoagulationCluster headaches (B) are typically unilateral and characterized by severe orbital, supraorbital, or temporal pain lasting 15–180 minutes, and recurring throughout the day. It is also associated with ipsilateral red conjunctiva, lacrimation, nasal congestion, and rhinorrhea. Seventy percent of the time these headaches resolve with oxygen administration. Based on presenting headache features, distinguishing vertebral from carotid artery dissection can be difficult. However, dissection of the vertebral artery (E) is typically associated with marked occipital or posterior neck pain and may be accompanied by focal neurological deficits, including ipsilateral facial numbness and contralateral pain and temperature sensory loss. Retinal artery occlusion (C) is painless and is associated with loss of vision. Fundoscopic exam reveals a pale retina with cherry red macula. Temporal arteritis (D) tends to occur in patients over 50 years of age and involves severe, throbbing, frontotemporal pain and jaw claudication. On exam, there is tenderness or decreased pulse in the temporal artery. ESR measurement is a useful screening test, but the final diagnosis is made by arterial biopsy
Incorrect
This patient has a carotid artery dissection. This is the most frequent cause of stroke in patients < 45 years old. Risk factors include minor neck trauma (cervical manipulation in this patient), family history of arterial disease, and connective tissue disorders. The most common presenting symptoms are unilateral neck pain or headache around the eye or frontal area. The pain is classically abrupt in onset. Carotid artery dissection is associated with a partial ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome of miosis and ptosis without facial anhidrosis. Horner’s syndrome results from a disruption of sympathetic innervation anywhere along the sympathetic chain. A carotid bruit may be heard on exam. The diagnostic study of choice is a MRI/MRA. If left untreated, it can lead to cerebral ischemia or retinal artery infarction and vision loss.
Carotid Artery Dissection
• Most common cause of stroke in patients < 45 years
• Connective tissue disorders, neck trauma
• Abrupt unilateral neck pain or headache around the eye/frontal area, partial ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome (miosis/ptosis)
• MRI/MRA
• AnticoagulationCluster headaches (B) are typically unilateral and characterized by severe orbital, supraorbital, or temporal pain lasting 15–180 minutes, and recurring throughout the day. It is also associated with ipsilateral red conjunctiva, lacrimation, nasal congestion, and rhinorrhea. Seventy percent of the time these headaches resolve with oxygen administration. Based on presenting headache features, distinguishing vertebral from carotid artery dissection can be difficult. However, dissection of the vertebral artery (E) is typically associated with marked occipital or posterior neck pain and may be accompanied by focal neurological deficits, including ipsilateral facial numbness and contralateral pain and temperature sensory loss. Retinal artery occlusion (C) is painless and is associated with loss of vision. Fundoscopic exam reveals a pale retina with cherry red macula. Temporal arteritis (D) tends to occur in patients over 50 years of age and involves severe, throbbing, frontotemporal pain and jaw claudication. On exam, there is tenderness or decreased pulse in the temporal artery. ESR measurement is a useful screening test, but the final diagnosis is made by arterial biopsy
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A 50-year-old male with no past medical history presents with the complaint that the “room is spinning”. His symptoms are worse with movement but are somewhat present at rest. Symptoms started three days ago. He denies recent fever or myalgias, and did not suffer any traumatic injury. Physical exam is significant for ataxia. During the head impulse test, the patient’s eyes remain fixed at the target (no refixation saccade is seen). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
MRI brain is correct. This patient’s normal head impulse test is concerning for central vertigo. In peripheral vertigo, typically the patient’s eyes will travel with the head as it is turned, and reflex saccadic movements will occur bring the eyes back to midline. The absence of this sign is suggestive of a central process such as a cerebellar stroke and should prompt further workup. The Dix-Hallpike maneuver is useful for peripheral vertigo due to BPPV. This patient’s head impulse test is more suggestive of central vertigo.
Incorrect
MRI brain is correct. This patient’s normal head impulse test is concerning for central vertigo. In peripheral vertigo, typically the patient’s eyes will travel with the head as it is turned, and reflex saccadic movements will occur bring the eyes back to midline. The absence of this sign is suggestive of a central process such as a cerebellar stroke and should prompt further workup. The Dix-Hallpike maneuver is useful for peripheral vertigo due to BPPV. This patient’s head impulse test is more suggestive of central vertigo.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
A 65-year old male with a history of diabetes and hypertension presents to the ER with a chief complaint of dizziness for 24 hours. He states he has the sensation of the room spinning. His symptoms are exacerbated by movement and improved but still present when lying still. Vital signs are: HR 95, BP 165/95, O2 sat 98%, and T 98.6F (37C). Physical exam is significant only for bidirectional horizontal nystagmus (when the patient looks right, he has nystagmus to the right, and when he looks left he has nystagmus to the left). The remainder of the physical exam, including a complete neurologic exam, is benign. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Correct
The correct answer is MRI brain and neurology consultation. Bidirectional nystagmus (like vertical nystagmus) is suggestive of central vertigo and a cerebellar stroke. While this patient’s other symptoms are suggestive of peripheral vertigo, an abnormal neurologic exam should prompt further testing.
Alternative physical exam features that can help distinguish central from peripheral vertigo are the Dix-Hallpike maneuver as well as the HINTS exam. In the HINTS exam, the patient is focused on your nose as you turn the head left and right. In a normal exam, the patient’s eyes remain fixed on your nose. In an abnormal exam (which suggests peripheral vertigo) the patient has trouble keeping his or her eyes on you and there is compensatory nystagmus towards the midline.
Incorrect
The correct answer is MRI brain and neurology consultation. Bidirectional nystagmus (like vertical nystagmus) is suggestive of central vertigo and a cerebellar stroke. While this patient’s other symptoms are suggestive of peripheral vertigo, an abnormal neurologic exam should prompt further testing.
Alternative physical exam features that can help distinguish central from peripheral vertigo are the Dix-Hallpike maneuver as well as the HINTS exam. In the HINTS exam, the patient is focused on your nose as you turn the head left and right. In a normal exam, the patient’s eyes remain fixed on your nose. In an abnormal exam (which suggests peripheral vertigo) the patient has trouble keeping his or her eyes on you and there is compensatory nystagmus towards the midline.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
A 42-year old male presents to the Emergency Department with a severe headache. He reports that over the 10 days each evening he has had a sudden onset severe headache lasting about 30 minutes and then resolving. The headaches are on the right side of the head only over the temporal area. Physical exam reveals an anxious appearing male with right-sided ptosis and conjunctival injection. The remainder of the physical exam, including a complete neurologic exam, is unremarkable. Visual acuity is intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient’s condition?
Correct
A. CT head followed by lumbar puncture
This patient’s history is suggestive of cluster headache. CT scan is not unreasonable as some patients with these symptoms can have structural abnormalities, but the daily quality of the headache makes subarachnoid unlikely and lumbar puncture is not necessary.B. High flow oxygen
The correct answer is high flow oxygen. This patient’s history and exam is classic for cluster headaches. Cluster headaches are characterized by attacks of unilateral pain and are relatively short-lived. Physical exam can demonstrate ptosis, miosis, lacrimation, conjunctival injection, rhinorrhea, or nasal congestion. This should occur only during headache and be ipsilateral to the pain. Initial treatment is with high flow oxygen which can abort the headache.C. Metoclopramide
This patient’s history is suggestive of cluster headache. Metoclopramide is more effective in the treatment of migraine headaches.D. Pilocarpine
This patient’s history is suggestive of cluster headache. While acute glaucoma is part of the differential diagnosis, the intermittent, short duration of symptoms with spontaneous resolution, makes glaucoma less likely.Incorrect
A. CT head followed by lumbar puncture
This patient’s history is suggestive of cluster headache. CT scan is not unreasonable as some patients with these symptoms can have structural abnormalities, but the daily quality of the headache makes subarachnoid unlikely and lumbar puncture is not necessary.B. High flow oxygen
The correct answer is high flow oxygen. This patient’s history and exam is classic for cluster headaches. Cluster headaches are characterized by attacks of unilateral pain and are relatively short-lived. Physical exam can demonstrate ptosis, miosis, lacrimation, conjunctival injection, rhinorrhea, or nasal congestion. This should occur only during headache and be ipsilateral to the pain. Initial treatment is with high flow oxygen which can abort the headache.C. Metoclopramide
This patient’s history is suggestive of cluster headache. Metoclopramide is more effective in the treatment of migraine headaches.D. Pilocarpine
This patient’s history is suggestive of cluster headache. While acute glaucoma is part of the differential diagnosis, the intermittent, short duration of symptoms with spontaneous resolution, makes glaucoma less likely.
The left sidebar has the link for ventilator waveforms that were discussed last week.
Hope everyone enjoyed the program run down last week. If there was anything you felt should have been said but was bypassed, please get in contact with the leadership.
This week, Dr. Bilfaqi will be presenting his M and M and Dr. Kava with be presenting her follow up rounds. Sandwiched in between those two will be another round of wellness with Dr. Min-Venditti and Drs. Molnar and Rooney’s flip. Flip is all about the domer. Ischemic stroke, vertigo, and headache.
Online Core Content
EMRAP’s core content library is growing increasingly strong with the C3 project. January of this year was Stroke, and it’s a 6 part podcast that has real patient interviews and is comprehensive. Cannot recommend this resource enough. Here is the link to the audio (total about 90 minutes). There is a written summary at the link if you’re one of those literate folk.
The American Heart Association/American Stroke Association updated their acute ischemic stroke workup in March 2018 (yes, last month). EMDocs has put together an actual readable document with all the important details.
You are better at catching an acute ischemic posterior CVA than an MRI if you know how to do a proper HINTS exam. Learn it here. Also here.
Text
Harwood and Nuss Chapter 7- Vertigo
Harwood and Nuss Chapter 153 Headache
Harwood and Nuss Chapter 155 Ischemic Stroke
OR