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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A chemistry undergraduate student presents after a splash to the eyes during an experiment 15 minutes ago. The initial pH of the affected eye is 11. After a liter of irrigation with a Morgan Lens, another litmus paper test is performed and shown. At what point can you discontinue irrigation of the eye?
Correct
In ANY case of chemical exposure to the eye the first step is irrigation of the eye, and while pH should ideally be measured immediately it should NOT delay irrigation. Note that tetracaine is an acidic substance and if administered prior to pH measurement it may give a false reading. The pH of this patient’s eye is 8, and the goal pH of the eye should be 7.0-7.4 and irrigation should continue until that is achieved to prevent further liquefactive necrosis in this case (remember that acidic injury causes coagulative necrosis and basic injury causes liquefactive necrosis). Emergent Ophtho consult is indicated. Once the goal pH is met, the eye should subsequently be stained with fluorescein and examined for any abrasion or ulceration.
Incorrect
In ANY case of chemical exposure to the eye the first step is irrigation of the eye, and while pH should ideally be measured immediately it should NOT delay irrigation. Note that tetracaine is an acidic substance and if administered prior to pH measurement it may give a false reading. The pH of this patient’s eye is 8, and the goal pH of the eye should be 7.0-7.4 and irrigation should continue until that is achieved to prevent further liquefactive necrosis in this case (remember that acidic injury causes coagulative necrosis and basic injury causes liquefactive necrosis). Emergent Ophtho consult is indicated. Once the goal pH is met, the eye should subsequently be stained with fluorescein and examined for any abrasion or ulceration.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 21-year old male construction worker presents with acute left eye pain while using a power sander at work. Visual acuity is OD 20/25 and OS 20/200. There is diffuse conjunctival injection to the left eye, and fluoroscein staining on the left eye is shown below. Which of the following is the next best step in management of this patient?
Correct
This image depicts Seidel’s sign (fluorescein moves away as contents (which appear yellow-green) leak out at site of globe rupture). When a globe rupture is suspected you should avoid any manipulation of the eye (tonometry is contraindicated!). While awaiting emergent ophthalmology consultation for operative repair, a CT orbit should be performed to rule out posterior ocular injury as well as identification of the foreign body. A tetanus vaccine should be documented as up-to-date, as well as prophylactic systemic antibiotics, any pain should be adequately controlled, and anti-emetics provided (to prevent further extrusion of ocular contents due to increased intraocular pressure when vomiting).
Incorrect
This image depicts Seidel’s sign (fluorescein moves away as contents (which appear yellow-green) leak out at site of globe rupture). When a globe rupture is suspected you should avoid any manipulation of the eye (tonometry is contraindicated!). While awaiting emergent ophthalmology consultation for operative repair, a CT orbit should be performed to rule out posterior ocular injury as well as identification of the foreign body. A tetanus vaccine should be documented as up-to-date, as well as prophylactic systemic antibiotics, any pain should be adequately controlled, and anti-emetics provided (to prevent further extrusion of ocular contents due to increased intraocular pressure when vomiting).
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A patient is hit in the eye by a ping pong ball and presents with moderate pain of his eye. Visual acuity is mildly decreased and intraocular pressures are within normal limits. His eye is shown below. What is the proper management at this time?
Correct
Patient is presenting with a Grade I hyphema. Treatment recommendations for a mild hyphema are bed rest, head of bed elevation to encourage layering out of red blood cells and clot formation. Ophtho follow up and discussion of risk of rebleeding from clot contraction are also indicated. Only severe cases of Grade IV aka “eight-ball” hyphema require surgical drainage/admission. An exception to this management plan is sickle cell patients, in which a hyphemia is emergent and requires ophtho consultation immediately. Additionally, anti-coagulation medications may cause or increase risk of developing a hyphema.
Incorrect
Patient is presenting with a Grade I hyphema. Treatment recommendations for a mild hyphema are bed rest, head of bed elevation to encourage layering out of red blood cells and clot formation. Ophtho follow up and discussion of risk of rebleeding from clot contraction are also indicated. Only severe cases of Grade IV aka “eight-ball” hyphema require surgical drainage/admission. An exception to this management plan is sickle cell patients, in which a hyphemia is emergent and requires ophtho consultation immediately. Additionally, anti-coagulation medications may cause or increase risk of developing a hyphema.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A 25 year old male presents with painful bilateral eyes for the past few days. He uses contact lenses and states that despite taking off his contact lenses he feels “something is stuck.” He denies recent illness, trauma or exposure. Pupils are equally reactive, and both eyes demonstrate diffuse bulbar conjunctival injection. Slit lamp exam with fluoroscein staining is shown. His pain is immediately relieved with administration of tetracaine anesthetic drops. There is no eyelid swelling or rashes. Which of the following is the correct diagnosis?
Correct
Diffuse superficial punctate keratitis (SPK) is usually an acute process arising from contact lens complications, UV exposure from welding or snow blindness, chemical exposure, topical eye medication toxicity, or in extreme dry eye cases. Symptoms include red eye, pain, photophobia, foreign body sensation, +/- mildly decreased visual acuity. Defining features of SPK on fluorescein stain include: pinpoint corneal epithelial defects that enhance. Classically, pain is relieved by the instillation of anesthetic drops, suggesting corneal epithelial involvement.
Non-contact lens wearers with a small amount of SPK should receive artificial tears +/- lubricating ointment. Severe amounts of SPK should also receive topical antibiotics such as erythromycin ointment for 3-5 days. Ophthalmology followup is usually on a non-emergent basis.
Contact lens wearers with a small amount of SPK should discontinue contact lens use until the condition resolves, with artificial tears +/- lubricating ointment. Severe amounts of SPK should also receive topical antibiotics such as fluoroquinolone or tobramycin. Urgent ophthalmology followup should be given.
Incorrect
Diffuse superficial punctate keratitis (SPK) is usually an acute process arising from contact lens complications, UV exposure from welding or snow blindness, chemical exposure, topical eye medication toxicity, or in extreme dry eye cases. Symptoms include red eye, pain, photophobia, foreign body sensation, +/- mildly decreased visual acuity. Defining features of SPK on fluorescein stain include: pinpoint corneal epithelial defects that enhance. Classically, pain is relieved by the instillation of anesthetic drops, suggesting corneal epithelial involvement.
Non-contact lens wearers with a small amount of SPK should receive artificial tears +/- lubricating ointment. Severe amounts of SPK should also receive topical antibiotics such as erythromycin ointment for 3-5 days. Ophthalmology followup is usually on a non-emergent basis.
Contact lens wearers with a small amount of SPK should discontinue contact lens use until the condition resolves, with artificial tears +/- lubricating ointment. Severe amounts of SPK should also receive topical antibiotics such as fluoroquinolone or tobramycin. Urgent ophthalmology followup should be given.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Correct
A hordeolum or stye is an abscess of the eyelid. It presents with pain, erythema, and swelling. Most resolve without intervention. Warm compresses for 15 minutes four times a day may help facilitate drainage. If the hordeolum does not improve in one to two weeks, the patient should be referred to an ophthalmologist for potential incision and drainage or antibiotics.
mnemonic: the Hordeolum is HOT and the Chalazion is COLD, but regardless of what it is warm compress you’ll hold
The hordeolum is an infectious process so will be inflammed and painful, while the chalazion is a painless “cold” cyst, regardless first line treatment is conservative
Incorrect
A hordeolum or stye is an abscess of the eyelid. It presents with pain, erythema, and swelling. Most resolve without intervention. Warm compresses for 15 minutes four times a day may help facilitate drainage. If the hordeolum does not improve in one to two weeks, the patient should be referred to an ophthalmologist for potential incision and drainage or antibiotics.
mnemonic: the Hordeolum is HOT and the Chalazion is COLD, but regardless of what it is warm compress you’ll hold
The hordeolum is an infectious process so will be inflammed and painful, while the chalazion is a painless “cold” cyst, regardless first line treatment is conservative
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 29-year-old man presents with numerous painless floaters in his left eye and shadowing in the periphery of his vision. The symptoms started after he went skydiving this morning. On the drive to the hospital, the lines of the road appeared to be curving when viewed in his left eye, even though he knew them to be straight. He has myopia, corrected with glasses. His corrected visual acuity is 20/20 in the right eye and 20/30 in the left eye, with decreased peripheral vision on the left. Ocular ultrasound is shown in the image below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Retinal detachment’s should be suspected in patient’s with monocular vision loss symptoms. They can be seen in older diabetic patients, however should be suspected in younger patients with trauma such as motor vehicle crashes, skydiving, bungee jumping, and other activities with sudden deceleration forces are risk factors. Patients with myopia (such as this patient) are at higher risk of traumatic retinal detachment. Diagnosis can be made with indirect ophthalmoscopy or ultrasound. Ultrasound will show a discrete hyperechoic retinal line projecting out from the posterior globe. Patients usually present with painless vision changes, including flashes of light, floaters, or the classic “curtain-like” loss of vision. Retinal detachment is an ophthalmologic emergency and early intervention can prevent worsening of the detachment.
Involvement of the macula is important to determine. If the retinal detachment involves the macula (“mac on”) it is LESS emergent than if the macula is not involved (“mac off”), this is because emergent surgical correction can salvage the macula in a “mac off” situation.
Retinal detachment is usually a thicker line which will not cross over the optic nerve as the retina is an extension of the nerve. This is in comparison to posterior vitreal hemorrhage which appears as a whispy thin line which can cross over the optic nerve. See the video link below.
Incorrect
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
A 39-year-old woman presents with pain and swelling around the eye as seen above. Extraocular motions are intact and vision is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Correct
This patient presents with dacryocystitis and should be treated with oral anti-staphylococcal antibiotics. Dacryocystitis is an acute infection of the lacrimal sac secondary to lacrimal duct obstruction. Given the obstruction of the lacrimal duct, topical abx treatment of the eye alone will not provide penetration into the infected area. It is typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms include swelling, redness, pain and tenderness to palpation over the lacrimal sac. Diagnosis can be aided with a fluorescein stain, aka fluorescein disappearance test, which sill either show lack of clearance of fluorescein dye to the eye over 5 minutes or fluorescein spilling out as tears (normal eye will clear fluorescein in <5 minutes). In addition to oral antibiotics, patients should be treated with warm compresses and gentle massage of the area. Complications of improperly treated dacryocystitis include peri-orbital and orbital cellulitis.
Incorrect
This patient presents with dacryocystitis and should be treated with oral anti-staphylococcal antibiotics. Dacryocystitis is an acute infection of the lacrimal sac secondary to lacrimal duct obstruction. Given the obstruction of the lacrimal duct, topical abx treatment of the eye alone will not provide penetration into the infected area. It is typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms include swelling, redness, pain and tenderness to palpation over the lacrimal sac. Diagnosis can be aided with a fluorescein stain, aka fluorescein disappearance test, which sill either show lack of clearance of fluorescein dye to the eye over 5 minutes or fluorescein spilling out as tears (normal eye will clear fluorescein in <5 minutes). In addition to oral antibiotics, patients should be treated with warm compresses and gentle massage of the area. Complications of improperly treated dacryocystitis include peri-orbital and orbital cellulitis.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A 30-year-old female presents to the emergency department for left eye pain. Yesterday she scratched her eye while putting in her contact lens. She has had constant left eye pain and tearing since, and denies foreign body sensation. On exam, visual acuity is 20/20 OU. Fluorescein exam findings are shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s condition?
Correct
This patient’s fluorescein exam is consistent with a corneal abrasion. It is caused by direct mechanical damage, leading to a partial-thickness corneal injury. Athletes, contact lens wearers, welders, and glass workers may present more often with these injuries. Diagnosis is confirmed when fluorescein dye highlights the usually linear or punctate abrasions. Multiple vertical corneal abrasions may indicate a retained foreign body beneath the eyelid. Corneal abrasion fluorescein exam findings are not to be confused with open globe injuries (streaking of the dye from the site of injury), corneal ulcers (circular patches of dye uptake with ragged, “heaped up” edges), and herpes simplex keratitis (dendritic pattern uptake). Patients commonly present with eye pain and tearing with a usually known mechanism of injury. The mainstay of treatment includes pain control, infection prophylaxis, updating tetanus as needed and preventative care to avoid abrasions in the future. For non-contact wearers prescribe erythromycin ointment, as this does not cover pseudomonal infections, contact lens wearers should be prescribed ciprofloxacin or tobramycin ophthalmic drops
Incorrect
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
A 27-year-old woman presents to a rural emergency department after getting kicked in the face by a horse two hours prior to arrival. Her left eye is swollen and she states that her left eye vision has worsened to the point she can no longer see. She complains of worsening pressure behind the left eye. She denies loss of consciousness. On exam, the patient has severe swelling and ecchymosis to the left periorbital region with proptosis. She cannot see with her left eye and is unable to move it. What is the next best step?
Correct
A lateral canthotomy should be performed in this woman who presents with classic symptoms for a traumatic injury causing retrobulbar hematoma and resultant orbital compartment syndrome. She displays the triad of symptoms including loss of vision, ophthalmoplegia, and proptosis. A retrobulbar hemorrhage from a ruptured infraorbital or ethmoidal artery with intact orbital walls may lead to orbital compartment syndrome. Loss of vision is irreversible 60–100 minutes after the onset of ischemia and so lateral canthotomy and inferior cantholysis should be performed in order to decompress the orbit and preserve vision. Intraocular pressure-lowering agents such as intravenous carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, topical beta-blockers, alpha agonists, and intravenous mannitol are temporizing measures.
Incorrect
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
A 37-year old male presents to the Emergency Department with progressively worsening right eye pain and vision. He was cutting metal three days prior when he suddenly felt something go into his eye. Since then, his vision has worsened to the point of only light perception. His left eye is unaffected. Gross visual inspection of the eye is as shown. There is no afferent pupillary defect. Vital signs are within normal limits. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
Correct
This patient has traumatic endopthalmitis. Suspicion should be high in any patient with recent trauma or intraocular surgery and signs/symptoms of infection or with hypopyon (purulent/white layering of fluid in anterior chamber). Manipulation of the eye should be avoided due to concern for globe rupture in this patient (e.g. ocular US/tonometry). A stat CT orbit is indicated to examine for foreign body. Systemic antibiotics are indicated in traumatic endopthalmitis, treatment should be broad-spectrum and common courses include vanc/ceftazidime. While at DRH vanc/cefepime is commonly used to treat various infections, BE AWARE that cefepime has relatively poor penetration into the vitrea and is not recommended. Common pathogens include staph/strep and oddly enough bacillus cereus. Topical antibiotics alone are insufficient. It is essential to consult ophthalmology as definitive management is generally surgical: vitrectomy and intra-vitreal abx injection.
Incorrect
This patient has traumatic endopthalmitis. Suspicion should be high in any patient with recent trauma or intraocular surgery and signs/symptoms of infection or with hypopyon (purulent/white layering of fluid in anterior chamber). Manipulation of the eye should be avoided due to concern for globe rupture in this patient (e.g. ocular US/tonometry). A stat CT orbit is indicated to examine for foreign body. Systemic antibiotics are indicated in traumatic endopthalmitis, treatment should be broad-spectrum and common courses include vanc/ceftazidime. While at DRH vanc/cefepime is commonly used to treat various infections, BE AWARE that cefepime has relatively poor penetration into the vitrea and is not recommended. Common pathogens include staph/strep and oddly enough bacillus cereus. Topical antibiotics alone are insufficient. It is essential to consult ophthalmology as definitive management is generally surgical: vitrectomy and intra-vitreal abx injection.
Happy Halloween y’all! This week we’re gettin’ spooky with eyeballs. We’ll start off the morning with an M&M by Dr. Inman, then FLIPS will be run by a dream team PGY-2 trio of Drs. Glamm, Capriccioso & Rousseau. We’ve got a special presentation from eyeball aficionado and honorary EM resident, Dr. Chris Davis. We’ll wrap up the day with a guest appearance from legendary black cloud, PGY-5 Dr. Jon Reines. Lunch to follow virtually because COVID is spooky.
Core Content: Harwood & Nuss
- Chapter 54: The Eye Examination
- Chapter 56: The Red Eye
- Chapter 57: Corneal Abrasion and Foreign Bodies
- Chapter 58: Acute Vision Loss
- Chapter 59: Diplopia
- Chapter 60: Acute Eye Infections
- Chapter 61: Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma
Core Content: Rosen’s
Supplementary Material
CorePendium:
— Glaucoma
— Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
— Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
— Hyphema
— Optic Neuritis
— Preseptal and Orbital Cellulitis
— Retinal Detachment and Defects
— Uveitis
emDocs:
– Acute Vision Loss in the ED: Pearls & Pitfalls
HIPPO:
— Hippo EM: Eyes
Procedure Based:
— Eyeball foreign body
— The Fluorescein Stain
— Eyeball pressures
— Optic Nerve Sheath Measurement
— Ocular Ultrasound – Vitreous vs Retinal Detachment
Other:
— If you’ve really given up on pre-reading and eyeballs, try this.