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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A 59-year-old otherwise healthy male presents with several days of intermittent painless gross hematuria. He notes some difficulty starting and maintaining his urine stream in recent months. Urinalysis is significant for 100 to 250 RBCs/hpf, 2 to 5 WBCs/hpf, and negative for leukocyte esterase and nitrite. Rectal examination reveals a large, smooth, nontender prostate. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct
Although the patient’s examination is consistent with BPH (associated with increased rates in asymptomatic hematuria), he is also at risk for urologic malignancies and needs urgent referral to urology for further evaluation. His urinalysis and lack of symptoms rule out a urinary tract infection as a cause for the hematuria. If urolithiasis is suspected, a noncontrast CT scan should be ordered to confirm the diagnosis.
Incorrect
Although the patient’s examination is consistent with BPH (associated with increased rates in asymptomatic hematuria), he is also at risk for urologic malignancies and needs urgent referral to urology for further evaluation. His urinalysis and lack of symptoms rule out a urinary tract infection as a cause for the hematuria. If urolithiasis is suspected, a noncontrast CT scan should be ordered to confirm the diagnosis.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Which of the following statements is true about the use of dopamine and diuretics for oliguric patients with acute renal failure?
Correct
Diuresis in an already dehydrated and therefore pre-renal patient may lead to worsening renal function due to renal ischemia. A “trial of diuretics” is not generally advised and is not without risk to the patient. There is no compelling evidence that the combination of diuretics and dopamine helps to prevent progression to end-stage renal disease for oliguric acute renal failure patients. Therefore neither can be considered “routine” therapeutic interventions.
Incorrect
Diuresis in an already dehydrated and therefore pre-renal patient may lead to worsening renal function due to renal ischemia. A “trial of diuretics” is not generally advised and is not without risk to the patient. There is no compelling evidence that the combination of diuretics and dopamine helps to prevent progression to end-stage renal disease for oliguric acute renal failure patients. Therefore neither can be considered “routine” therapeutic interventions.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Which is the most accurate statement concerning continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)?
Correct
Peritonitis is a fairly common occurrence in patients maintained on CAPD. It is usually initially recognized when peritoneal fluid is noted to be cloudy at the time it is drained for a routine exchange. With prompt medical attention, including microbiologic evaluation of peritoneal fluid, patients can be treated with intraperitoneal antibiotics as outpatients after an initial intraperitoneal dose is given in the ED. The prognosis of uncomplicated peritonitis is generally excellent, and patients are typically asked to follow up in 2 days. Free air seen on abdominal plain film is most often due to air being introduced during a previous fluid exchange. CT scanning is not indicated unless there is severe abdominal pain and tenderness or other findings suggestive of perforation.
Incorrect
Peritonitis is a fairly common occurrence in patients maintained on CAPD. It is usually initially recognized when peritoneal fluid is noted to be cloudy at the time it is drained for a routine exchange. With prompt medical attention, including microbiologic evaluation of peritoneal fluid, patients can be treated with intraperitoneal antibiotics as outpatients after an initial intraperitoneal dose is given in the ED. The prognosis of uncomplicated peritonitis is generally excellent, and patients are typically asked to follow up in 2 days. Free air seen on abdominal plain film is most often due to air being introduced during a previous fluid exchange. CT scanning is not indicated unless there is severe abdominal pain and tenderness or other findings suggestive of perforation.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A 55-year-old female is brought to the ED with fever and chills that began during hemodialysis. Her rectal temperature is 38.6°C. She has no cough, shortness of breath, chest pain, abdominal pain, or hypotension. Which is the most accurate statement?
Correct
Vascular access infections are not uncommon in hemodialysis patients, and patients may present with fever alone, and no local or systemic findings. Although bacteremia is often found, endocarditis is unusual in the absence of prolonged or recurrent fever, or of the usual risk factors for infective endocarditis. The hemodialysis procedure itself rarely causes fever.
Incorrect
Vascular access infections are not uncommon in hemodialysis patients, and patients may present with fever alone, and no local or systemic findings. Although bacteremia is often found, endocarditis is unusual in the absence of prolonged or recurrent fever, or of the usual risk factors for infective endocarditis. The hemodialysis procedure itself rarely causes fever.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A 25-year-old man is brought from the hemodialysis unit because of hypotension that occurred during dialysis. His blood pressure is currently 94/60, pulse is 84, and he is afebrile. Physical examination is otherwise normal. An ECG is unchanged from a previous tracing. Which of the following is most accurate?
Correct
A 25-year-old man is brought from the hemodialysis unit because of hypotension that occurred during dialysis. His blood pressure is currently 94/60, pulse is 84, and he is afebrile. Physical examination is otherwise normal. An ECG is unchanged from a previous tracing. Which of the following is most accurate?
Incorrect
A 25-year-old man is brought from the hemodialysis unit because of hypotension that occurred during dialysis. His blood pressure is currently 94/60, pulse is 84, and he is afebrile. Physical examination is otherwise normal. An ECG is unchanged from a previous tracing. Which of the following is most accurate?
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 34-year-old man with a history of chronic alcoholism presents with diffuse muscle pain, dark urine and weakness for 2 days. He denies any fever, upper respiratory symptoms, or recent travels. Urinalysis is significant for (+)hematuria and 0 RBCs/hpf. Serum creatinine is normal. Which of the following underlying serum electrolyte abnormalities may have precipitated this patient’s likely condition?
Correct
This patient is presenting with likely rhabdomyolysis. Rhabdomyolysis has numerous causes, and there are two prominent electrolyte disorders that may precipitate/predispose the patient to developing rhabdomyolysis: hypophosphatemia and hypokalemia. Hypophosphatemia and rhabdomyolysis has been associated in chronic alcoholics.
Rhabdomyolysis, once developed, is characterized by muscle necrosis, with the release of intracellular contents. Typical electrolyte sequelae seen as a consequence of rhabdomyolysis include hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcemia.
Incorrect
This patient is presenting with likely rhabdomyolysis. Rhabdomyolysis has numerous causes, and there are two prominent electrolyte disorders that may precipitate/predispose the patient to developing rhabdomyolysis: hypophosphatemia and hypokalemia. Hypophosphatemia and rhabdomyolysis has been associated in chronic alcoholics.
Rhabdomyolysis, once developed, is characterized by muscle necrosis, with the release of intracellular contents. Typical electrolyte sequelae seen as a consequence of rhabdomyolysis include hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcemia.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Paramedics brought in a 28-year-old woman for altered mental status. Per family, she has a history of end-stage renal disease and last hemodialysis was 3 days prior. She complained of fatigue yesterday but otherwise normal. EKG is as follows. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
Correct
This EKG shows wide-complex tachycardia. Given the history of end-stage renal disease on hemodialysis, and patient is likely due for hemodialysis, one must suspect hyperkalemia. When wide-complex tachycardia is secondary to hyperkalemia, the treatment is calcium to stabilize the myocardium. Insulin and D50 may also be given, as well as kayexalate. The definitive treatment will be dialysis but this patient must be stabilized. The other treatments of other causes of wide-complex tachycardia will not work in this condition.
Incorrect
This EKG shows wide-complex tachycardia. Given the history of end-stage renal disease on hemodialysis, and patient is likely due for hemodialysis, one must suspect hyperkalemia. When wide-complex tachycardia is secondary to hyperkalemia, the treatment is calcium to stabilize the myocardium. Insulin and D50 may also be given, as well as kayexalate. The definitive treatment will be dialysis but this patient must be stabilized. The other treatments of other causes of wide-complex tachycardia will not work in this condition.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
An 18-year old patient presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of hematuria and fatigue. Past medical history is significant for a URI . Vitals are as follows: BP 160/80 HR 78 RR 16 O2sat 100%. Physical exam reveals pitting edema to bilateral lower extremities. Laboratory testing reveals an elevated creatinine of 2.07 mg/dl, and urine reveals red blood cells and red cell casts. Which of the following is a potential cause of this patient’s disease entity?
Correct
The patient has nephritic syndrome which classically manifests as hypertension, azotemia, edema, and hematuria (with RBC casts). There are many causes, including post-streptococcal, systemic diseases, infections, drugs, and autoimmune. In this patient’s case, the recent URI suggests a post-streptococcal infection. Further, the other answer choices are more likely to cause nephrotic syndrome, not nephritic syndrome. Post-strep glomerulonephritis is thought to be caused by immune complex deposition. Management is supportive care.
Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in young children. It can also occur in adults but is much less common. This patient’s red blood cell casts is more suggestive of a nephritic syndrome. Focal segmental glomerularsclerosis is a cause of kidney failure in children and adults. In adults it accounts for 35 percent of all cases of nephrotic syndrome (50% among African American patients). Classically it is associated with HIV infection. This patient’s URI prior to symptom onset however is more suggestive of post-strep glomerulonephritis. Further, the hematuria and red blood cell casts suggests a nephritic, not nephrotic syndrome.
Incorrect
The patient has nephritic syndrome which classically manifests as hypertension, azotemia, edema, and hematuria (with RBC casts). There are many causes, including post-streptococcal, systemic diseases, infections, drugs, and autoimmune. In this patient’s case, the recent URI suggests a post-streptococcal infection. Further, the other answer choices are more likely to cause nephrotic syndrome, not nephritic syndrome. Post-strep glomerulonephritis is thought to be caused by immune complex deposition. Management is supportive care.
Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in young children. It can also occur in adults but is much less common. This patient’s red blood cell casts is more suggestive of a nephritic syndrome. Focal segmental glomerularsclerosis is a cause of kidney failure in children and adults. In adults it accounts for 35 percent of all cases of nephrotic syndrome (50% among African American patients). Classically it is associated with HIV infection. This patient’s URI prior to symptom onset however is more suggestive of post-strep glomerulonephritis. Further, the hematuria and red blood cell casts suggests a nephritic, not nephrotic syndrome.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
A 28-year-old woman with no previous medical history, presents with headache and flank pain. The flank pain has been present intermittently for several months, but the headache started suddenly today. She reports that she was exercising when she noted a sudden onset severe headache. The vital signs are as follow: BP 196/102, HR 86, RR 17, Temp 97.6°F , and O2 saturation 98% on room air. Laboratory findings are notable for Cr of 3.3 mg/dl, and urine analysis with large red blood cells. Bedside ultrasound shows multiple cystic structures in her bilateral kidneys. Physical exam is remarkable for an uncomfortable appearing female but is otherwise nonfocal. Which is the most appropriate management at this time?
Correct
This young woman presents with sudden-onset headache, and is hypertensive with renal insufficiency. One must consider polycystic kidney disease. In polycystic kidney disease, patients typically present with flank pain, hematuria, hypertension and renal insufficiency. In addition to cysts in the kidneys, patients may also develop liver cysts and cerebral aneurysm. In setting of a sudden-onset headache, a head CT should be obtained to evaluate for a ruptured aneurysm.
Incorrect
This young woman presents with sudden-onset headache, and is hypertensive with renal insufficiency. One must consider polycystic kidney disease. In polycystic kidney disease, patients typically present with flank pain, hematuria, hypertension and renal insufficiency. In addition to cysts in the kidneys, patients may also develop liver cysts and cerebral aneurysm. In setting of a sudden-onset headache, a head CT should be obtained to evaluate for a ruptured aneurysm.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
A 29-year-old HIV-positive man presents with generalized malaise and decreased urine output for the past 4 days. His most recent CD4 count is 84. He denies any fevers, cough, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, or diarrhea, but states he was recently started a medication for an “infection in the back of my eyes”. Basic metabolic panel shows creatinine level of 4.67. Which of the following laboratory result is most consistent with this condition?
Correct
Generalized malaise, decreased urine output, and elevated creatinine level are suggestive of acute renal failure. There are three etiologies of renal failure: prerenal, intrinsic, and postrenal. In this case, patient is immunocompromised and is recently started on a medication for an infection, presumably an antiviral for CMV retinitis. Many antivirals and antiretrovirals are nephrotoxic, and cause intrinsic renal failure. In acute tubular necrosis (ATN), which is the most common form of intrinsic renal failure, fractional excretion of sodium is typically > 2%, with low urine osmolality due to the loss of concentrating ability of damaged tubules and impaired response to anti-diuretic hormone. Hyaline casts can be observed with concentrated urine, but generally are non-specific. Heme-granular casts, or “muddy brown” casts, are classically seen with ATN.
Incorrect
Generalized malaise, decreased urine output, and elevated creatinine level are suggestive of acute renal failure. There are three etiologies of renal failure: prerenal, intrinsic, and postrenal. In this case, patient is immunocompromised and is recently started on a medication for an infection, presumably an antiviral for CMV retinitis. Many antivirals and antiretrovirals are nephrotoxic, and cause intrinsic renal failure. In acute tubular necrosis (ATN), which is the most common form of intrinsic renal failure, fractional excretion of sodium is typically > 2%, with low urine osmolality due to the loss of concentrating ability of damaged tubules and impaired response to anti-diuretic hormone. Hyaline casts can be observed with concentrated urine, but generally are non-specific. Heme-granular casts, or “muddy brown” casts, are classically seen with ATN.
We’re back again with #KeepingUpWithTheKidneys! This week we’re starting off with an M&M by Dr. Jeren Wong. We’ll then move into some more Renal FLIPs with Drs. Gyory and Sloan. Dr. Yousif will then follow with another round of Foundations. Finally, we’ll top off the day with the #KOVIDKWEEN herself in a Critical Care CoTM and US presentation by Dr. Alangaden!
Core Content: Harwood & Nuss
- Chapter 118: Acute Kidney Injury
- Chapter 119: Chronic Kidney Disease and Dialysis-Related Emergencies
- Chapter 126: Urolithiasis
Core Content: Rosen’s
Supplementary Material
EMRA:
— CorePendium: Dialysis Related Emergencies
— CorePendium: Urinary Tract Infections
— Review of Dialysis Catheter Placement
EM Crit:
— Dialyze This
— Acute Kidney Injury
HippoEM:
— Chronic Kidney Disease
emDOCs:
– The Sick Dialysis Patient
— The Dialysis Patient: Managing Fistula Complications in the Emergency Department
— Pearls and Pitfalls of UTIs